Post by jq on Nov 11, 2007 17:55:57 GMT -5
Okay, so I am reading through part of the old testament and I am reading that many righteous people, including father Abraham, had concubines (It mentions his on Genesis 25:6). I wasn't sure what a concubine was at first, so I looked it up in a dictionary. The dictionary says that a concubine is " a woman who cohabits with a man to whom she is not legally married, esp. one regarded as socially or sexually subservient; mistress" (Dictionary.com).
What I am wondering is, how can this be? I know that Jesus speaks about monogamy, and I know that monogamy is WIDELY practiced in the Christian community. What I am wondering is why some people, an in Abraham's case, HIGHLY REVERED people, of the old testament aren't addressed for polygamy (or having multiple live-in partners) as committing a sin. Nowhere that I have seen yet is Abraham called out for the sin of polygamy or for having multiple sex partners. YET, monogamy is something widely preached by a faith that holds Abraham in a very high esteem.
A little help on understanding this? (Feels like a contradiction to me.)
What I am wondering is, how can this be? I know that Jesus speaks about monogamy, and I know that monogamy is WIDELY practiced in the Christian community. What I am wondering is why some people, an in Abraham's case, HIGHLY REVERED people, of the old testament aren't addressed for polygamy (or having multiple live-in partners) as committing a sin. Nowhere that I have seen yet is Abraham called out for the sin of polygamy or for having multiple sex partners. YET, monogamy is something widely preached by a faith that holds Abraham in a very high esteem.
A little help on understanding this? (Feels like a contradiction to me.)
